Physiology questions pdf download

Better supply to left ventricle in systole — No, obviously E. In less in subendocardium - Correct B. Is less in the middle muscle layers or: middle layer of ventricular wall C. Greater in right ventricle than left ventricle D. CV38 [f] Adenosine receptor: A. IP3 C. Lower sympathetic tone in the lower half of the body B. Decreased total peripheral resistance C. Increased BP in upper body - Yes D.

Jul99 version: Coarctation of the aorta: A. Cardiac output is 1. Systemic vascular resistance is higher in the lower limbs as cvompared to the upper limbs - Possibly C. Blood flow in all tissues will be normal — Yes, autoregulation should see to that D.

Arterial baroreceptors are inactive — No E. Apex of left ventricle B. Base of left ventricle C. Septum — Probably correct D. Epicardium at base of left ventricle E. Right ventricle? CV41 [g] Beta adrenergic receptors: A. Described by? Lofgren in? At least 3 subtypes are now known - Correct C. The number should be close to mean pulmonary arterial pressure of 15mmHg or so CV43 [fk] The velocity of blood flow is greatest in: A.

Capillaries — No, linear velocity is the slowest here B. Pulmonary vein during diastole — Probably the most correct C. Small arteries — No, this is where it starts to drop off D. Inferior vena cava — No, as some of the flow is missing from the SVC Difficult question: Linear velocity is dependant not only on flow but vessel diameter… CV44 [fi] In a 70kg trained athlete at rest: A.

Cardiac output 7 lpm — At rest, maybe less B. Left ventricular end-systolic volume 60mls C. Stroke volume 70mls — No, usually greater than the mean resting SV D.

Skeletal muscle D. Use glycine as a neurotransmitter — No, glutamate B. Synapse in the C1 area of the brainstem — No, A2 area C. July version Q24 on this paper : Arterial baroreceptor afferents A.

Utilise glycine as a neurotransmitter — No, glutamate C. Primary synapse in C1 area of the medulla — No, A2 D. Right atrial systole and left atrial systole occur at same time — Correct. Pulmonary valve closes before aortic in inspiration — No, normally always closes later C. CV50 [j] In an average, healthy 70kg male with standing erect with mean arterial BP of mmHg: A: Cerebral venous pressure is approximately 10mmHg — No it is almost zero or negative B: Mean arterial pressure at head level is 70mmHg — No, closer to 80mmHg C: Venous pressure in foot is approximately?

Aortic blood flow is reversed — No, blood flow still occurs in the forward direction, helped by arterial compliance B. Coronary blood flow increases C. The pulmonary valve is not yet shut — No, it has been shut and still is shut… Update after July Exam from MCQs submitted by your colleagues. Aortic pressure is falling — Correct, it is not until the end of this phase when the aortic valve opens does it rise E. Immediate increase in heart rate due to cardiac sympathetics OR: Baroreceptor reflex decrease in heart rate B.

Does no work — Probably correct… no external work being done really… E. Decrease stroke volume CV52 [k] Cerebral blood flow is increased by: A. Increased regional? Carotid sinus — Yes B. Carotid body — No, chemoreceptor C. Right atrium — Yes D. Aortic arch — Yes E. Large veins — Yes Comment: The carotid body is a chemoreceptor.

Having both options here probably alerts you to the correct answer - KB CV54 [kl] The volume of blood is greatest in: A. The liver — part of the others… E. Arteriolar constriction — No, decreases B. Venous constriction — Yes, increases capillary pressure C. Increased heart rate — Not alone B. Increased stroke volume — Not alone C. CV58 [m] Long term control of tissue blood flow includes: A. Adenosine — No, short term B. Nitric oxide — No, short term C. Change in tissue vascularity — Correct long term — see Ganong p D.

Oxygen tension at the precapillary sphincter — No, short term E. Fast Na Channels B. Presence of actin and myosin — No, they both have this… D. Lower RMP E. CV61 [op] Widened pulse pressure in all except: A. More rapid ventricular ejection — This does widen pulse pressure B.

Increased aortic compliance — Correct — this decreases PP. Opposite occurs with age ie. Increased diastolic pressure D. Alt version: All increase pulse pressure except A. Increased TPR B. Increased Stroke Volume C. Increased Diastolic pressure E.

Increases contractility B. Comments received Jul "Couple of other options that were plain wrong. Maybe I missed something but I assumed it was mainly to contract the peripheral circulation and allow circulating blood to stay in the coronary and cerebral circulation.

I didn't think it was to increase contractility the ventricle is not pumping blood out and circulation is due to CPR. Decreased diastolic BP — Slight decrease may be possible due to inadequate maximal vasoconstriction to cope with that volume loss B.

Decreased cerebral blood flow — No, unless there are other compounding factors E. Increased urinary sodium concentration — No, the effects of aldosterone, which in this person, should be well established via RAS I'd say they're trying to make us think it is the former the later is just TOO obvious.

Sympathetic nervous system — Yes, NA causes contraction of mesangial cells and decreases area available for filtration in the glomerulus B. Sodium flow past macula densa — Yes, Renin secretion inversely proportional to transport of Na and Cl across this portion macula densa just before the start of the DCT C. Arterial pressure — No, only at extremes of pressure outside autoregulatory range — between mmHg E. Is directly measured by infusing PAH — No, indirectly measured 0.

Is closely related to tubular sodium reabsorption — Not closely D. Parasympathetic via hypogastric plexus — No, vagal origin via aorticorenal plexus KD02 [a] Which has the greatest renal clearance? PAH - Yes, used to measure renal plasma flow ie. Assumes that the renal vein has no PAH B. Water - No E. None of the above? D-glucose more rapidly absorbed than L-glucose — Yes D. Reabsorption is inversely proportional to lipid solubility — No… KD05 [d] Water filtration by the kidney: A.

Most drugs have MW less than and are freely filtered — No, depends on lots of factors KD06 [efghj] A substance is freely filtered and actively secreted. Which of the following represent the changes in concentration of the substance along the nephron? None of the above Alt version: Substance that is freely filtered and then reabsorbed by a saturable transport mechanism: Graph of Excretion rate y axis vs Plasma concentration x axis with 4 curves labelled A to D and with E: None of the above.

Which curve represents the? Probably D if resorption curve A. Curve A-B B. Curve A-C C. Curve A-D D. Proximal convoluted tubule — Urea reabsorption takes place in the proximal tubule by? Distal convoluted tubule — No, water not urea is removed C. KD08 [f] Glomerular capillary permeability is: A.

Less than in ordinary capillaries — No, much greater Kf 50x that of skeletal muscle B. Na content in distal tubule — Yes, effects renin secretion sensed by macula densa E. Afferent arteriole driving force -???? All cross if? Equals that of other capillaries — No, greater than most B.

Is much less than that of other capillaries — No, greater than most C. Is equal for cationic and anionic molecules of equal size — No, see above D. KD12 [hi] Significant tubular reabsorption occurs with: A. Creatinine C. Urea D. Sulphate E. Increased chloride delivery to the macula densa — No, this decreases GFR Apr version: Which of the following is involved in the regulation of glomerular filtration rate GFR?

Juxtaglomerular apparatus B. Afferent arteriolar tone C. Efferent arteriolar tone D. Chloride transport at the macula densa E. Increase Ca excretion and increase phosphate excretion B.

Increase Ca excretion and decrease phosphate excretion C. Decrease Ca excretion and increase phosphate excretion - Correct D. Decrease Ca excretion and decrease phosphate excretion E. Renal artery B. Peritubular capillaries E.

Increase in GFR — no, this would increase inulin clearance by the same amount B. Must be secreted by either the proximal or distal tubules - Correct C. Must have a lower molecular weight than Inulin — No, not directly relevant Alt version: If a substance x is cleared by the kidney at a rate greater than inulin, it must be: A.

Actively secreted - Correct C. TX negative E. Alt version: If a substance is found in the urine at a HIGHER concentration than inulin, then — depends on plasma concentration surely?? Answers below assuming same initial concentration in plasma…. It is secreted into the lumen — yes….

There is less reabsorption in the? Active transport into the lumen — No… C. Passive secretion in the collecting tubules — No.. Solvent drag — No, this refers to the drag of solutes by the solvent eg some Na in late proximal tubule E. Facilitated diffusion — No, water reabsorption under the influence of ADH is facilitated diffusion F.

Erythropoietin - Yes B. ADH - No, supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus C. Angiotensin II — No, produced in the liver D. ANP - Atrium E. Cholecalciferol — Made in the skin, hydroxy in the liver, 1-hydroxy in the kidney KD25 [l] Renal nerve sympathetic stimulation A. KD26 [l] Water reabsorption by the kidney: A.

By active transport — No, facilitated diffusion and osmosis D. Depends only on the hydrostatic and osmotic pressure differences across the capillary — Depends on the membrane too C. Is determined by the same forces governing filtration across all other capillaries - Correct D. Depends only on the permeability of the capillary — No, not only E. Regulated by macula densa C. Increase ADH D. Increase angiotensin E. Increased sympathetic stimulation B.

Decreased renal blood flow C. Ureteric obstruction E. KD31b [o] Regarding renal clearance: A. Sodium — Yes, aldosterone B. Potassium — Yes, aldosterone C. Sulphate — Nope.. KD34 [o] Biggest contribution to urine concentration by: A. Passive diffusion of urea in collecting ducts — No… C.

Open at the top B. Open at the bottom C. Open at the top and the bottom D. Closed at the top and the bottom — Yes, but relaxes on swallowing E. Absorbed into chylomicrons in the lymphatics - Yes D.

Bile salts are the most efficient emulsifiers B. Pancreatic lipase in the duodenum is the most important - Yes D. Causes a deficiency in haemoglobin — Not always D. Passive — No, active and controlled metal transporter on luminal side and active transport out of basolateral membrane B.

Decreased with increased pH — Most correct… D. Decreased transferrin saturation - Yes C. Transferrin synthesis is reduced — No, increased D. Increased amounts of ferritin — No, this is in iron overload E. Haemosiderin is produced — No, this is just large intralysosomal aggregates of ferritin Update after July Exam from MCQs submitted by your colleagues.

Excretion of transferrin in the gut — No, and even if this were true, transferrin is a protein… B. Shedding of intestinal mucosal cells - Yes C. Increased renal excretion — No effect D. GI08 [gk] Gastric acid secretion is decreased by: A. Vagal inhibition - Yes B. Noradrenaline - No D. M1 cholinergic antagonist same efficacy at reducing gastric acid secretion -???? Secretin — Yes, increases the secretion of bicarbonate by the duct cells of pancreas and bile ducts B.

Intrinsic factor — No effect on pH D. Gastrin releasing peptide — No, this is the transmitter secreted by the vagus which innervate the G Cells, and thus increase gastrin secretion F. High protein meal - No B. High fat meal — Yes… C.

Alcohol — No, some people eat fatty meals to slow the release of alcohol to the duodenum D. GI13 [l] In the small intestine, glucose is absorbed A. Passively - No B. By cotransport with Chloride - No E. Carbohydrate in the mouth and protein in the stomach — Yes, but not complete answer…? Protein in mouth and fats and carbohydrate in stomach — No… D. Most fluid and electrolytes are absorbed in the large bowel — No, ml in small bowel ml in colon E.

Is passive — No, active transport B. Requires a carrier protein on the mucosal side - Yes C. Is by facilitated diffusion — No, active transport, facilitated by 1,cholecalciferol induces synthesis of 2 forms of Ca binding proteins and several Ca-H-ATPase transporters D.

Is facilitated by phosphate — No, it is inhibited by phosphates as they form insoluble salts in the intestine GI16 [o] Bacteria in the intestines: A. Reduced by the continuous movement of contents through GIT B. Small intestine is sterile — No… C. Bacteria in small intestine and large intestine — same in number but different species — No… D. Required for the absorption? PGE2 B. PGF2alpha C. PGD2 E.

Prostaglandin E C. Prostaglandin F D. PGF2 alpha C. TBXA2 D. LTD4 BL03 [dk] In a patient receiving 24 units of blood over 2 hours, the complication most likely to be seen would be: A. Hypercalcaemia — No, if anything the Ca may be a little lower B. Coagulopathy — Ca low enough to interfere with clotting is incompatible with life but lack of clotting factors… D.

Metabolic alkalosis — No, if anything it would be an acidosis but citrate would buffer it a little? Hyperkalaemia — Probably the most likely, due to increased [K] in storage blood C. Coagulopathy due to hypocalcaemia — No, levels low enough for this are incompatible with life D.

Hypocalcaemia — Possible with that much blood over what time frame? Dilutional coagulopathy — Possible, usually due to thrombocytopaenia before coagulation factor deficiency C. Metabolic alkalosis — No, more likely acidosis D. IgA — Yes, for external secretions exists as a monomer, dimer or trimer B.

IgG C. IgM D. IgE E. Stimulates red and white cell production — No, immature erythroid cells only B. Is broken down in the kidney — No, liver C. Has a half life of days — No, hours D. Red cell maturation 24 to 72 hours — No, days B. Metabolised in liver - Yes D. Half-life is 5? Capture bacteria in the blood — I guess this is the most correct option!

XIa — Yes. Xa — Yes. IIa — Yes D. IXa - Yes E. Factor 5 B. Heparin C. Antithrombin 3 D. Has pressor activity — Yes, but almost none… D.

BL10 [e] Post-translational modification occurs with: A. Factor V B. Von Willebrand factor C. Factor XII D. Modification of amino acid residues in proteins — Yes, by combination reactions hydroxylation, carboxylation, glycosylation, phosphorylation of aa residues — which essently splices the protein C.

Fe is excreted by the kidney — No, iron is reused or stored Fe loss is mainly from GI epithelia shedding B. Haem is broken down to biliverdin — Yes, but it is rapidly converted to bilirubin in the tissues… C.

Haem is converted to bilirubin and transported to liver bound to albumin — Yes, this is correct too D. Vessel wall damage — No. Fibrinogen E. Suppressor T cells C. Helper T cells — Yes… D. None of the above Jul99 version: Immunoglobulin? Constant both chains BL16 [h] Platelet activation requires: A. Ca - Yes C. Cyclooxygenase — Possbily….?

Prostaglandins BL17 [hk] Cytokines are: A. Low molecular weight proteins - Correct B. Enzymes C. Autacoids D. Immunoglobulins E. Contains all clotting factors except for platelets — True, there are no platelets D. Is not useful in treating? Does not contain albumin — False, it does…. Helper T cells - No D. Previous exposure to antigen - No E. Plasma proteins — Correct ie. The complement proteins! Originate in the bone marrow and migrate to their site of action as megakaryocytes — No, as monocytes B.

Kill bacteria in phagosomes by lymphokines — No, are stimulated by lymphokines C. Are activated by cytokines secreted by activated T cells — Yes, lymphokines D. All leucocytes B. B cells C. T cells D. Opsonisation B. The antigen presenting cell presents antigen - Correct C. Needs T helper cells D. Previous exposure B.

Active T helper cells D. None of the above BL23 [k] Thrombin inhibits A. Are formed in the bone marrow in adults — No, most are formed from lymph nodes, thymus, spleen from precursor cells that originated from the bone marrow C. Formed from neonatal precursor cells — Yes, from bone marrow lymphocyte precursor cells which are then processed in the thymus or bursal equivalent to become T or B lymphocytes D.

Produced by tissues derived from foetal bone marrow - No E. BL25 [l] Rejection of an allograft is due to: A. Non specific immunity B.

Supressor T cells C. Helper T cells D. Cytotoxic T cells - Correct E. One protoporphorin ring and 4 ferrous ions B. Four protoporphorin ring and one ferrous ion C.

None of the above BL27 [p] Blood viscosity: A. Is independent of the white cell count — Not normally but it can be B. Falls as haematocrit rises — No, increases C.

Is independent of vessel diameter — No it is, axial streaming, etc D. Falls as flow rate rises - Correct E. Protein catabolism — only prolonged fasting C.

Acidosis — only prolonged fasting D. Ketone production from protein — only prolonged fasting E. Develop a metabolic acidosis C. Demonstrate ketone body formation in the liver — Correct — lipid metabolism, production of Acetyl-CoA in the absence of adequate carbohydrates… D. Cortisol — Correct see above B. Parathyroid hormone C. Growth hormone D. Insulin EM04 [a] Which of the following are associated with adrenocortical hypofunction?

Aseptic necrosis of bone B. Osteoporosis C. Redistribution of body fat D. Decreased muscle bulk E. Delayed closure of epiphyses Who knows? EM05 [adel] The hypothalamus inhibits the release of: A. TSH B. ACTH C. FSH D. GH — Correct somatostatin E. Oxytocin EM06 [cjl] Secretion of renin is stimulated by: A. Increased left atrial pressure — No this secretes naturetic peptide B. Increased angiotensin II — No, this stimulates angiotensinogen production, but has a negative effect on renin production C.

Decreased right atrial pressure — Probably, a low pressure baroceptor response? July version: Which decreases renin release: A. PG — No, this stimulates renin secretion B. Vasopressin — Correct, this inhibits renin secretion D. Increased left atrial pressure — No B. Increased angiotensin II — No, negative feedback C. Decreased right atrial pressure — Yes if this sufficient to activate renal sympathetic nerves D.

It causes: A. Increased urine output D. Increased ECF or blood volume E. Insertion of water channels pores into basolateral membrane — No, apical membrane B. Inserts water channels into the apical membrane — Correct B. Inserts water channels into the basolateral membrane - Incorrect C. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D D.

Vitamin E E. Now before that we move on to sharing the free PDF download of Costanzo Physiology, 7th edition PDF with you, here are a few important details regarding this book which you might be interested. Costanzo Physiology, 7th edition PDF is one of the best book for quick review. It is very good book to study a day before your exam. It can also cover your viva questions and will help you to score very high. By Linda S. Costanzo PhD. They form mitotic spindles.

Intermediate filaments a. Identify all examples of inclusions. Which of the following represents a site of storage for molecules that a cell uses as a source of energy?

Which of the following may help transport ribosomal subunits out of the nucleus? Which of the following is not a principle of the cell theory? Most cells come from preexisting cells. Cells are the smallest things that can be alive.

All cells have certain fundamental structures and functions in common. Cells are the fundamental living building blocks of multicellular organisms. A cell in the pancreas that secretes an enzyme to hydrolyzes lipids would be expected to have a. Docking markers are most closely associated with a. Golgi complexes e. Identify the item that is not taken into a cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Identify the pairing that has the least related items: a. Identify the item that does not enter a cell through a coated pit: a. Which pairing is most out of place? Mitochondrion and vesicle formation b. Lysosome and autophagia c. Cytoskeleton and vesicle transport d. ER and lipid synthesis e. Which of the following is most closely associated with cilia? Electron microscopes are about times more powerful than light microscopes.

The cytoplasm includes everything between the plasma membrane and nucleus of a cell. DNA in the nucleus has the genetic instructions to make dynein.

The nucleus indirectly governs most cellular activities by directing the kinds and amounts of various enzymes and other proteins that are produced by the cell. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is most abundant in cells specialized for protein secretion, whereas smooth endoplasmic reticulum is abundant in cells that specialize in lipid metabolism.

Proteins synthesized at the endoplasmic reticulum become permanently separated from the cytosol as soon as they have been synthesized. RER is most abundant in cells specialized for steroid production.

The Golgi complex is functionally connected to the ER. The endoplasmic reticulum is one continuous organelle consisting of many tubules and cisternae. Lysosomes synthesize hydrolase enzymes. The rough ER synthesizes proteins within their interconnected sacs. Secretory vesicles are taken into a cell by means of phagocytosis. Secretory vesicles are about times larger than transport vesicles.

Coated vesicles bud off the Golgi complex and contain various proteins. All cell organelles are renewable. Vaults are presumably descendants of primitive bacterial cells. Endocytosis can only be accomplished by phagocytosis and pinocytosis. Phagocytosis is a specialized form of endocytosis used primarily for bringing ECF into the cytosol. Peroxisomes are nonmembranous organelles that generate and degrade hydrogen peroxide.

Glycolysis utilizes most of the stored energy in glucose when synthesizing ATP molecules. ATP synthase is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Most intermediary metabolism is accomplished in the cytosol. Oxidative phosphorylation generates more ATP per glucose molecule than does glycolysis. Dynein is a mitochondrial enzyme. Cytokinesis is the division of the nucleus during mitosis.

Amoeboid movement is accomplished by alternate assembly and disassembly of actin filaments. The protective, waterproof outer layer of skin is formed by the tough skeleton of intermediate filaments that persist after the surface skin cells die. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is likely associated with the disruption of microtubules and microfilaments within motor neurons. The Golgi complex synthesizes recognition markers that recognize and attract specific sorting signals.

Motor molecules cannot transport vesicles along intermediate filaments of the cytoskeleton. Oxygen molecules are used in the Krebs cycle and at the end of the ETS. Primary cilia are responsible for moving dust from the respiratory tract. The cytoplasm is the same as the ICF.

Lipid synthesis does not occur in the rough ER. The two primary organelles involved in detoxifying harmful substances are the peroxisomes and the Golgi complex. The amount of smooth ER within liver cells may change dramatically over a period of days, depending on the amount of drug detoxification that is required. Peroxisomes arise from vesicles produced at the rough ER, while lysosomes arise from vesicles produced at the Golgi complex. The only time the contents of secretory vesicles come in contact with the cytosol is when the vesicle joins with the plasma membrane.

Coatomers form around endosomes formed during receptor-mediated endocytosis. Dynamin is synthesized inside endosomes and is responsible for pinching off the endosome from the plasma membrane.

Skeletal muscle cells have numerous mitochondria within their endoplasmic reticulum and this special organization is called the mitochondrial reticulum.

If a candy bar is likened to a single glucose molecule, then a pyruvate molecule would be likened to two candy bars. The Krebs cycle occurs within the mitochondria while the citric acid cycle occurs in the cytosol.

Houses the cell's DNA 2. Responsible for cell shape and movement 3. Highly organized membrane-bound intracellular structures 4. Selectively controls movement of molecules between the intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid 5. Consists of organelles and cytosol 6. Site of intermediary metabolism 7. Permits incompatible chemical reactions to occur simultaneously in the cell 8. Separates contents of the cell from its surroundings 9. Site of fat and glycogen storage 1.

Largest of the cytoskeletal elements Present in parts of the cell subject to mechanical stress Smallest element visible with a conventional electron microscope Consist of actin Form the mitotic spindle Essential for creating and maintaining an asymmetrical cell shape Composed of tubulin Provide a pathway for axonal transport Play a key role in muscle contraction Slide past each other to cause ciliary bending Contains enzymes important in detoxifying various wastes Important component of cilia and flagella Continuous extensive organelle consisting of a network of tubules and flattened filament Removes unwanted cellular debris and foreign material Produces most of the ATP for most cells Acts as a mechanical stiffener Synthesizes proteins for use in the cytosol Consists of stacks of flattened sacs May function as transporter of materials through the nuclear membrane Used as "highway" for kinesin and dynein Used as "highway" for myosin Descendents of bacteria that were engulfed by primitive cells Hair-like motile protrusions Increase the surface area of the small intestine epithelium Increase the surface area of the kidney tubules